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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 06:03

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How did a computer scientist such as Geoffrey Hinton manage to win a Nobel Prize in physics when computer science already has its own Nobel Prize equivalent in the Turing Awards?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Are you already having anal sex?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.